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| SSC CHSL |
Q1.The salary and allowances of the Governor are charged to.
A the Consolidated Fund of India
B the Consolidated Fund of the State
C the Contingency Fund of India
D none of the above
ANS B
Sol. He is entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by Parliament by the consolidated fund of state. When the same person is appointed as the governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances payable to him are shared by the states in such proportion as determined by the president.
Q2. Can a person act as Governor of more than one state?
A YES
B NO
C only for a period of six months
D only for a period of one year
ANS A
Sol. When the same person is appointed as the governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances payable to him are shared by the states in such proportion as determined by the president.
Q3. What makes the Judiciary the guardian of the Constitution?
A Independence
B Service conditions
C Salary
D Judicial Review
ANS D
Sol. Article32-Judicial Review refers to the power of the judiciary to interpret the constitution and to declare any such law or order of the legislature and executive void, if it finds them in conflict the Constitution of India.
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| POLITY MCQ PRACTICE |
Q4. In the Supreme Court of India the number of Judges including the Chief Justice is now
A 20
B 21
C 25
D 31
ANS D
Sol. At present, the Supreme Court consists of thirty-one judges .
Q5. On which of the following ground can a judge of the Supreme Court be impeached?
1 Violation of the Constitution
2 Proved misbehaviour
3 In capacity to act as a judge
A 1 ONLY
B 2 ONLY
C 1, 2, and 3
D 2 and 3 only
ANS D
Sol. The grounds of removal of Supreme court judge are two—proved misbehaviour or incapacity.No Supreme court judge is impeached till now.
Q6. What are the Panchayats in the three-tier Panchayati Raj System?
A Gram Panchayat
B Janpad Panchayat
C Jila Parishads
D all of the above
ANS d
Sol. The Panchayat system has three levels: Gram Panchayat (village level), Mandal Parishad or Block Samiti or Block Panchayat (block level), and Jila Parishad (district level).
Q7. G V K Rao committee on Panchayat raj is constituted on –
A 1980
B 1982
C 1981
D 1985
ANS D
Sol. GVK Rao committee was appointed by Planning Commission in 1985. The committee come to Final conclusion that development process was gradually bureaucratised and divorced from the Panchayat Raj.
Q8.The salary and allowances of the Governor are charged to
A the Consolidated Fund of India
B the Consolidated Fund of the State
C the Contingency Fund of India
D none of the above
ANS B
Sol - He is entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by Parliament by the consolidated fund of state. When the same person is appointed as the governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances payable to him are shared by the states in such proportion as determined by the president.
Q9. Can a person act as Governor of more than one state?
A yes
B NO
C only for a period of six months
D only for a period of one year
ANS A
Sol. When the same person is appointed as the governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances payable to him are shared by the states in such proportion as determined by the president.
Q10. What makes the Judiciary the guardian of the Constitution?
A Independence
B Service conditions
C Salary
D Judicial Review
ANS D
Sol. Article32-Judicial Review refers to the power of the judiciary to interpret the constitution and to declare any such law or order of the legislature and executive void, if it finds them in conflict the Constitution of India.
Q11. In the Supreme Court of India the number of Judges including the Chief Justice is now
A 20
B 21
C 25
D 31
ANS D
Q12. What are the Panchayats in the three-tier Panchayati Raj System?
A Gram Panchayat
B Janpad Panchayat
C Jila Parishads
D all of the above
ANS D
Sol. The Panchayat system has three levels: Gram Panchayat (village level), Mandal Parishad or Block Samiti or Block Panchayat (block level), and Jila Parishad (district level).
Q13. G V K Rao committee on Panchayat raj is constituted on –
A 1980
B 1982
C 1981
D 1985
ANS D
Sol. GVK Rao committee was appointed by Planning Commission in 1985. The committee come to Final conclusion that development process was gradually bureaucratised and divorced from the Panchayat Raj.
Q14.The person who is appointed as Chief Minister
A should not be a member of either house of state legislature
B Should be a member of either house of state legislature
C must possess the qualifications to be elected as member of state legislature but not be a member of the legislature
D should be a member of the legislative council only
ANS B
Sol. According to the Constitution, the Chief Minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of a state
legislature. Usually Chief Ministers have been selected from the Lower House (legislative assembly).
Q15. Who of the following is regarded as the head of the state council of ministers?
A the Chief Minister
B the Governor
C the Speaker
D none of the above
ANS A
Sol. There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister as the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except in so far as he is required to exercise his functions in his discretion.
Q16. A member of the council of ministers can hold office without being a member of the state legislature for a maximum period of
A three months
B six months
C one year
D two years
ANS B
Sol. A person who is not a member of either House of the state legislature can also be appointed as a minister. But, within six months, he must become a member (either by election or by nomination) of either House of the state legislature; otherwise, he ceases to be a minister.
Q17. To whom can the chief election commissioner advise on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of Parliament?
A Governor
B President of India
C Prime Minister
D Chief Justice of India
ANS B
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| MCQ POLITY |
Q18. In which year the president appointed two more election commissioners?
A 1989
B 1980
C 1979
D 1965
ANS A
Sol. On 16 October 1989, the president appointed two more election commissioners.
Q19. The chief election commissioner hold office until they attain the age of –
A 62 years
B 65 years
C 60 years
D 55 years
ANS B
Sol. The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
Q20. To whom can the chief election commissioner advise on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of state legislature?
A Chief Minister
B Governor
C President of India
D Chief Justice of High Court
ANS B
Sol. The chief election commissioner can advise the governor on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of state legislature.
Q21. The status of national or state parties are provided to the political parties by-
A Parliament
B Attorney General
C CAG
D Election commission
ANS D
Sol. The status of national or state parties are provided to the political parties by the election commission on the basis of poll performance.
Q22. Which part of Indian constitution contain provisions regarding the UPSC?
A Part XIV
B Part XI
C Part XV
D Part X
ANS A
Sol. Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution contain elaborate provisions regarding the composition, appointment and removal of members along with the independence, powers and functions of the UPSC.
Q23. The chairman and other members of UPSC appointed by-
A Prime Minister
B Chief Justice of India
C President of India
D None of these
ANS C
Sol. The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India.
Q24. The chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for-
A Six years
B until they attain the age of 65 years
C Five years
D EITHER A OR B
ANS D
Q25. The President can remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office on the basis of which of the following circumstances-
A If he is adjudged an insolvent
B If he engages in any paid employment outside the duties of his office during his term of office
C If he is unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body in the opinion of the president
D All of the above
ANS D
Sol. Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution contain elaborate provisions regarding the composition, appointment and removal of members along with the independence, powers and functions of the UPSC.Best Polity Question For SSC and Railway
Q26. Which of the following government institution conducts examinations for appointments to the all-India services, Central services and public services of the centrally administered territories?
A State Public Service Commission
B Union Public Service Commission
C Department of Personnel and Training
D None of these
ANS B
Sol. The UPSC conducts examinations for appointments to the all-India services, Central services and public services of the centrally administered territories.
Q27.Which is the supreme law of India?
A Indian Penal Code
B Indian Constitution
C Civil Procedure Code
D Criminal Procedure Code
ANS B
Sol. Constitution of India is the supreme law of India.
Q28. The original constitution of India was handwritten by?
A Jawaharlal Nehru
B Prem Behari Narain Raizada
C B.R. Ambedkar
D None of These
ANS B
Sol. The original constitution of India was handwritten by Prem Behari Narain Raizada, who penned the constitution in his own impeccable calligraphy.
Q29.Bicameral system is a feature of which of the following form of government-
A Parliamentary system
B President system/
C Federal system
D Unitary system
ANS C
Sol. A bicameral system is a reference to a government with two legislative houses or chambers.
Q30. Who among the following was the first ‘Minister of Education’ in independent India?
A R.K. Shanmukham Chetty
B Liaquat Ali Khan
C Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
D Satya Narayan Sinha
ANS C
Sol. Maulana Sayyid Abul Kalam Ghulam Muhiyuddin Ahmed bin Khairuddin Al-Hussaini Azad was an Indian scholar and senior leader of the Indian National Congress during the Indian independence movement.
Q31.Which of the following is not a feature of Indian Constitution?
A Parliamentary form of Government
B Independence of Judiciary
C Presidential form of Government
D Federal Government
ANS C
Sol. A presidential system is a democratic and republican system of government where a head of government leads an executive branch that is separate from the legislative branch. This head of government is in most cases also the head of state, which is called president.
Q32.Which of the following is not considered a Democracy?
A USA
B Norway
C India
D China
ANS D
Q33.Which of the following is a feature of Presidential form of government?
A It protects the freedom of people
B It ensures the speedy execution of policies
C Fix term stabilizes the system
D All of these
ANS D
Sol. The presidential form of government is that in which the executive is not responsible to the legislature. An example of such a system of Government is the United States of America (U.S.A)
Q34.The convention that “once a speaker always a speaker” is followed in-“once a speaker always a speaker”
A UK
B USA
C France
D India
ANS A
Sol. In UK once elected, a Speaker continues in office until the dissolution of Parliament, unless he or she resigns prior to this. Customarily, the House re-elects Speakers who desire to continue in office for more than one term.
Q35.From where did India adopted the federal system with a strong centre?
A United States of America
B Canada
C United Kingdom
D France
ANS B
Sol. The Federal System with Strong Centre has been borrowed by the Indian Constitution from Canada.
Q36.The system of Budget was introduced in India during the Viceroyalty of
A Canning
B Dalhousie
C Ripon
D Elgin
ANS A
Sol. The system of budget was introduced in India during the viceroyalty of Lord Canning.
Q1. Judicial Review means
A the right of the judiciary to advice the President on constitutional matters
B he power of the judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws passed by the Legislature and orders issued by the Executive
C the right of the Parliament to ask the judiciary to review its own judgement in view of the popular resentment
D none of the above
ANS B
Sol. Judicial review is a process under which executive or legislative actions are subject to review by the judiciary. A court with authority for judicial review may invalidate laws and governmental actions that are incompatible with a higher authority: an executive decision may be invalidated for being unlawful or a statute may be invalidated for violating the terms of a constitution. Judicial review is one of the checks and balances in the separation of powers: the power of the judiciary to supervise the legislative and executive branches when the latter exceed their authority.
Q2. In Parliament, the chief spokesman of the government on matters of general policy is the
A Speaker
B Prime Minister
C Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
D Home Minister
ANS B
Sol. The Prime Minister of India, as addressed in the Constitution of India, is the chief of the government, chief adviser to the president, head of the council of ministers and the leader of the majority party in the parliament. The prime minister leads the executive of the Government of India.The prime minister is the senior member of cabinet in the executive of government in a parliamentary system.The Prime Minister is responsible for the real administration of the country. He is regarded as the chief administrator in India.He is the chief spokesman of the Government of India. It is the duty of the Prime Minister to keep the President informed of all the decisions of the Council of Ministers from time to time.
Q3. Which one of the following financial power is not enjoyed by the Governor?
A all the demands for grants are presented before the State Legislature on the recommendation of the Governor
B he is incharge of the Contingency Fund of the State and can make advances out of it to meet unforeseen expenditure
C the supplementary grants, if any, are presented before the State Legislature on the recommendation of the Governor
D he can order the reduction of salaries and allowances of the State civil servants during the President’s rule in the State
ANS D
Sol. The Governor has also financial powers and functions. No money-bill can be originated in the State Legislature without the recommendation of the Governor. In every year, the budget is laid before the State Legislature by the Governor. No proposals for taxation or expenditure can be made without the approval of the Governor.
Q4. Which one of the following categories of emergency has not been declared so far?
A national emergency
B emergency due to break down of constitutional machinery
C financial emergency
D none of the above
ANS C
Sol. Financial Emergency Under Article 360. If the President is satisfied that there is an economic situation in which the financial stability or credit of India is threatened, he or she can declare financial emergency. Such an emergency must be approved by the Parliament within two months. It has never been declared.
Q5. ‘Education’ which was initially a state subject was transferred to the Concurrent List by the
A 24th Amendment
B 25th Amendment
C 42nd Amendment
D 44th, Amendment
ANS C
Sol. Through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 Five subjects were transferred from State to Concurrent List. They are: Education, Forests, Weights & Measures, Protection of Wild, Animals and Birds, Administration of Justice.
Q6. How many fundamental Rights are mentioned in Indian constitution?
A 5
B 6
C 7
D 8
ANS B
Sol. The Constitution guarantees six fundamental rights to Indian citizens as follows: (i) right to equality, (ii) right to freedom, (iii) right against exploitation, (iv)right to freedom of religion, (v) cultural and educational rights, and (vi) right to constitutional remedies.
Q7. In which year was Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) founded?
A 1949
B 1999
C 1972
D 1997
ANS B
Sol. The Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) is a centrist nationalist political party in India. The NCP was formed on 25 May 1999, by SharadPawar, P. A. Sangma, and Tariq Anwar. The Election Symbol of NCP is an analogue clock that reads 10:10.
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