Polity Question for RRB
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| INDIAN POLITY |
Q1.The salary and allowances of the Governor are charged to
A the Consolidated Fund of India.
B the Consolidated Fund of the State
C the Contingency Fund of India
D none of the above
ANS B
He is entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by Parliament by the consolidated fund of state. When the same person is appointed as the governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances payable to him are shared by the states in such proportion as determined by the president.
Q2. Can a person act as Governor of more than one state?
A YES
B NO
C only for a period of six months
D only for a period of one year
ANS A
Sol. When the same person is appointed as the governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances payable to him are shared by the states in such proportion as determined by the president.
Q3. What makes the Judiciary the guardian of the Constitution?
A Independence
B Service conditions
C Salary
D Judicial Review
ANS D
Sol. Article32-Judicial Review refers to the power of the judiciary to interpret the constitution and to declare any such law or order of the legislature and executive void, if it finds them in conflict the Constitution of India.
Q4. In the Supreme Court of India the number of Judges including the Chief Justice is now
A 20
B 21
C 25
D 31
ANS D
Q5. What are the Panchayats in the three-tier Panchayati Raj System?
A Gram Panchayat
B Janpad Panchayat
C Jila Parishads
D all of the above
ANS D
Q6. G V K Rao committee on Panchayat raj is constituted on –
A 1980
B 1982
C 1981
D 1985
ANS D
Sol. GVK Rao committee was appointed by Planning Commission in 1985. The committee come to Final conclusion that development process was gradually bureaucratised and divorced from the Panchayat Raj.
Q7.The person who is appointed as Chief Minister
A should not be a member of either house of state legislature
B Should be a member of either house of state legislature
C must possess the qualifications to be elected as member of state legislature but not be a member of the legislature
D should be a member of the legislative council only
ANS B
Sol. According to the Constitution, the Chief Minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of a state
legislature. Usually Chief Ministers have been selected from the Lower House (legislative assembly).
legislature. Usually Chief Ministers have been selected from the Lower House (legislative assembly).
Q8. A member of the council of ministers can hold office without being a member of the state legislature for a maximum period of
A three months
B six months
C one year
D two years
ANS B
Sol. A person who is not a member of either House of the state legislature can also be appointed as a minister. But, within six months, he must become a member (either by election or by nomination) of either House of the state legislature; otherwise, he ceases to be a minister.
Q9. Judicial Review means
A the right of the judiciary to advice the President on constitutional matters
B the power of the judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws passed by the Legislature and orders issued by the Executive
C the right of the Parliament to ask the judiciary to review its own judgement in view of the popular resentment
D none of the above
A the right of the judiciary to advice the President on constitutional matters
B the power of the judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws passed by the Legislature and orders issued by the Executive
C the right of the Parliament to ask the judiciary to review its own judgement in view of the popular resentment
D none of the above
ANS B
Sol. Judicial review is a process under which executive or legislative actions are subject to review by the judiciary. A court with authority for judicial review may invalidate laws and governmental actions that are incompatible with a higher authority: an executive decision may be invalidated for being unlawful or a statute may be invalidated for violating the terms of a constitution. Judicial review is one of the checks and balances in the separation of powers: the power of the judiciary to supervise the legislative and executive branches when the latter exceed their authority.
Q10. In Parliament, the chief spokesman of the government on matters of general policy is the
A Speaker
B Prime Minister
C Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
D Home Minister
ANS B
Sol. The Prime Minister of India, as addressed in the Constitution of India, is the chief of the government, chief adviser to the president, head of the council of ministers and the leader of the majority party in the parliament. The prime minister leads the executive of the Government of India.The prime minister is the senior member of cabinet in the executive of government in a parliamentary system.The Prime Minister is responsible for the real administration of the country. He is regarded as the chief administrator in India.He is the chief spokesman of the Government of India. It is the duty of the Prime Minister to keep the President informed of all the decisions of the Council of Ministers from time to time.
Q11. Which one of the following financial power is not enjoyed by the Governor?
A all the demands for grants are presented before the State Legislature on the recommendation of the Governor
B he is incharge of the Contingency Fund of the State and can make advances out of it to meet unforeseen expenditure
C the supplementary grants, if any, are presented before the State Legislature on the recommendation of the Governor
D he can order the reduction of salaries and allowances of the State civil servants during the President’s rule in the State
ANS D
ANS C
Sol. Financial Emergency Under Article 360. If the President is satisfied that there is an economic situation in which the financial stability or credit of India is threatened, he or she can declare financial emergency. Such an emergency must be approved by the Parliament within two months. It has never been declared.
Q13. ‘Education’ which was initially a state subject was transferred to the Concurrent List by the
A 24th Amendment
B 25th Amendment
C 42nd Amendment
D 44th, Amendment
ANS C
Sol. Through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 Five subjects were transferred from State to Concurrent List. They are: Education, Forests, Weights & Measures, Protection of Wild, Animals and Birds, Administration of Justice.
Q14. How many fundamental Rights are mentioned in Indian constitution?
A FIVE
B SIX
C SEVEN
D EIGHT
ANS B
Sol. The Constitution guarantees six fundamental rights to Indian citizens as follows: (i) right to equality, (ii) right to freedom, (iii) right against exploitation, (iv)right to freedom of religion, (v) cultural and educational rights, and (vi) right to constitutional remedies.
Q15. In which year was Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) founded?
A 1949
B 1999
C 1972
D 1997
ANS B
Sol. NITI (NATIONAL INSTITUTION OF TRANSFORMING INSTITUTION) is a government policy think tank replacing Planning Commission by Cabinet Resolution from 1st January 2012.The Prime Minister is chairperson of NitiAayog.
Sol. The method of election of President has been taken from Irish Constitution.
Sol. The Constitution states that the Vice-President can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an effective majority (50% of effective strength of house, here effective strength equals the total number strength minus the number of vacancies) and a simple majority (50% of total members who are present and voting) of the Lok Sabha (Article 67(b)).But no such resolution may be moved unless at least 14 days’ advance notice has been given. Notably, the Constitution does not list grounds for removal. No Vice-President or ex officio Vice-President has ever faced removal proceedings.
Sol. Judicial review is a process under which executive or legislative actions are subject to review by the judiciary. A court with authority for judicial review may invalidate laws and governmental actions that are incompatible with a higher authority: an executive decision may be invalidated for being unlawful or a statute may be invalidated for violating the terms of a constitution. Judicial review is one of the checks and balances in the separation of powers: the power of the judiciary to supervise the legislative and executive branches when the latter exceed their authority.
Q10. In Parliament, the chief spokesman of the government on matters of general policy is the
A Speaker
B Prime Minister
C Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
D Home Minister
ANS B
Sol. The Prime Minister of India, as addressed in the Constitution of India, is the chief of the government, chief adviser to the president, head of the council of ministers and the leader of the majority party in the parliament. The prime minister leads the executive of the Government of India.The prime minister is the senior member of cabinet in the executive of government in a parliamentary system.The Prime Minister is responsible for the real administration of the country. He is regarded as the chief administrator in India.He is the chief spokesman of the Government of India. It is the duty of the Prime Minister to keep the President informed of all the decisions of the Council of Ministers from time to time.
Q11. Which one of the following financial power is not enjoyed by the Governor?
A all the demands for grants are presented before the State Legislature on the recommendation of the Governor
B he is incharge of the Contingency Fund of the State and can make advances out of it to meet unforeseen expenditure
C the supplementary grants, if any, are presented before the State Legislature on the recommendation of the Governor
D he can order the reduction of salaries and allowances of the State civil servants during the President’s rule in the State
ANS D
Sol. The Governor has also financial powers and functions. No money-bill can be originated in the State Legislature without the recommendation of the Governor. In every year, the budget is laid before the State Legislature by the Governor. No proposals for taxation or expenditure can be made without the approval of the Governor.
Polity Question for RRB
Q12. Which one of the following categories of emergency has not been declared so far?
A national emergency
B emergency due to break down of constitutional machinery
C financial emergency
D none of the above
Sol. Financial Emergency Under Article 360. If the President is satisfied that there is an economic situation in which the financial stability or credit of India is threatened, he or she can declare financial emergency. Such an emergency must be approved by the Parliament within two months. It has never been declared.
Q13. ‘Education’ which was initially a state subject was transferred to the Concurrent List by the
A 24th Amendment
B 25th Amendment
C 42nd Amendment
D 44th, Amendment
ANS C
Sol. Through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 Five subjects were transferred from State to Concurrent List. They are: Education, Forests, Weights & Measures, Protection of Wild, Animals and Birds, Administration of Justice.
Q14. How many fundamental Rights are mentioned in Indian constitution?
A FIVE
B SIX
C SEVEN
D EIGHT
ANS B
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| INDIAN POLITY MCQ |
Q15. In which year was Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) founded?
A 1949
B 1999
C 1972
D 1997
ANS B
Sol. The Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) is a centrist nationalist political party in India. The NCP was formed on 25 May 1999, by SharadPawar, P. A. Sangma, and Tariq Anwar. The Election Symbol of NCP is an analogue clock that reads 10:10.
Q16. Which of the following is not included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
A Prohibition of Liquor
B Right to Work
C Equal Wage for Equal Work
D Right to Information
ANS D
Sol. India borrowed the DPSP from Irish Constitution of 1937, the directive principles place an ideal before the legislator of India which shows that light while they frame the policies & laws. They are basically a code of conduct for the legislature and administrators of the country, Prohibition of Liquor, Right to Work, Equal Wage for Equal Work are some example of directive principle.
Q17. What is the literal meaning of the term “Quo-Warranto”?
A We command
B To forbid
C By what authority
D None of these
ANS C
Sol. The word Quo-Warranto literally means “by what warrants?” or “what is your authority”? It is a writ issued with a view to restrain a person from holding a public office to which he is not entitled. The writ requires the concerned person to explain to the Court by what authority he holds the office.
Q18. Who among the following is the executive head of state in India?
A Prime Minister
B President
C Cabinet Secretary
D Finance Secretary
ANS B
Sol. The executive power is vested mainly in the President of India, as per Article 53 (1) of the constitution. Thus President of India is the executive head of State of India.
Q19. Part IV of constitution of India deals with which of the following?
A The Union
B The States
C Fundamental Rights
D Directive Principles of State Policy
ANS D
Sol. The Directive Principles of State Policy, embodied in Part IV of the Constitution, are directions given to the state to guide the establishment of an economic and social democracy, as proposed by the Preamble.
Q20. Who among the following gave monistic theory of sovereignty?
A Austin
B Darwin
C Aristotle
D Marx
ANS A
Sol. In the 19th century the theory of sovereignty as a legal concept was perfected by Austin, an English Jurist. He is regarded as a greatest exponent of Monistic Theory.
Q21. Anti-defection law is given in which schedule of Indian constitution?
A Second Schedule
B Tenth Schedule
C Third Schedule
D Fourth Schedule
ANS B
Sol. The anti-defection law was passed by parliament in 1985. The 52nd amendment to the Constitution added the Tenth Schedule which laid down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection i.e. Anti-defection law.
Q22. Who among the following is not a member of any of the two houses of our country?
A Prime Minister
B Finance Minister
C President
D Railway Minister
ANS C
Sol. President is not a member of any of the two houses of Parliament.
Q23. Which of the following is a feature of federal Government?
A Supremacy of Parliament
B Supremacy of Judiciary
C Division of powers between federal and state Government
D Single citizenship
Sol. The main federal features of Constitution are- Written Constitution, Supremacy of the Constitution, Rigid Constitution, Division of Powers between federal and state government, Independent Judiciary, Bicameral Legislature and Dual Government Polity.
Q24. NITI Aayog has been formed to replace which of the following institution?
A Planning Commission
B IRDA
C Department of Telecommunications (DoT)
D Department of Information Technology.
ANS A
Q25. Which Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution prohibits trafficking, forced labour, and children working under 14 years of age?
A Right to Equality
B Right to Freedom
C Right against Exploitation
D Right to Freedom of Religion
ANS C
Sol. Articles 23 and 24 under Right Against Exploitation of the Indian Constitution safeguard women and children and others against exploitation of various forms. Right against Exploitation is the Fundamental Right which prohibits trafficking, forced labour (begar) and child employment under 14 years of age.
Q26. How many types of writ are there in the Indian Constitution?
A 5
B 4
C 3
D 2
ANS A
Polity Question for RRB
Q27. In Indian constitution, the method of election of President has been taken from which country?
A Britain
B USA
C Ireland
D Australia
ANS C
Q28. Who of the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
A H.N. Kanzru
B B.R. Ambedkar
C Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
ANS B
Sol. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar, chairman of the Drafting Committee, presenting the final draft of the Indian Constitution to Dr. Rajendra Prasad on 25 November, 1949.On 29th August 1947, the Constituent Assembly through a resolution appointed a Drafting Committee.The Drafting Committee had seven members: Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, N. Gopalaswami; B.R. Ambedkar, K.M Munshi, Mohammad Saadulla, B.L. Mitter and D.P. Khaitan. At its first meeting on 30th August 1947, the Drafting Committee elected B.R Ambedkar as its Chairman.
Q29. Which one of the following writs is issued by a higher court asking the lower court to send the record of a particular case to it on the ground that it is not competent to decide the case?
A Habeas Corpus
B Quo Warranto
C Certiorari
D Mandamus
ANS C
Sol. The Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcement of any of the fundamental rights conferred by Part III of Indian Constitution under Article 32.The Right to Constitutional Remedies, as we know, is a guarantor of all other fundamental rights available to the people of India. Certiorari under Art. 226 is issued for correcting gross error of jurisdiction i.e. when a subordinate court is found to have acted without jurisdiction or by assuming jurisdiction where there exists none , or in excess of its jurisdiction by over stepping or crossing the limits of jurisdiction or acting in flagrant disregard of law or rules of procedure or acting in violation of principles of natural justice where there is no procedure specified and thereby occasioning failure of justice.
Q30. In the Parliament, what is the meaning of the Government Bill
A Bill presented by Ruling Party member
B Bill approved by the Government
C Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill
D A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament
ANS D
Sol. Legislative proposals are brought before either house of the Parliament in the form of a bill. A bill is the draft of a legislative proposal, which, when passed by both houses of Parliament and assented to by the President, becomes an Act of Parliament.
Q31. Which constitutional article empowers amendment in the Constitution of India
A Article 368
B Article 356
C Article 357
D Article 359
ANS A
Sol. Amending the Constitution of India is the process of making changes to the nation’s fundamental law or supreme law. The procedure of amendment in the constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of India.
Q32. The function of Protem Speaker is to
A check if the election certificates of members are in order
B conduct the procedings of the house in the absence of the speaker
C swearing in members and hold change till a regular speaker is elected
D officiate as speaker when a speaker is unlikely to be elected
ANS C
Sol. Pro-tem Speaker is the temporary speaker who presides over the first meeting after the election. The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are selected by members of the Parliament is held under the Pro-tem Speaker. The main duty of the Pro-tem Speaker is to administer the oath of office to new members of the house.
Q33. The Vice-President of India can be removed from his office before the expiry of his term if
A the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of its members and the Lok Sabha agrees with the resolution
B if the Supreme Court of India recommends his removal
C the President so desires
D none of the above
ANS A
Q34. Which one of the following functions of the Vice-President as ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha has been wrongly listed ?
A he presides over the meetings of the Rajya Sabha and conducts its business
B he protects the privileges of the members of Rajya Sabha
C he can dissolve the Rajya Sabha
D he acts as the spokesman of Rajya Sabha before the President and the Lok Sabha
ANS C
Sol. The Vice-President of India is the second-highest constitutional office in India after the President. Article 63 of Indian Constitution states that “there shall be a Vice-President of India.” The Vice-President acts as President in the absence of the President due to death, resignation, impeachment, or other situations.
Polity Question for RRB
Q35. The value of votes of the MLAs for the election of the President is different in order to
A give greater weight to highly populated states
B safeguard the interests of smaller states
C keep the total value of the MLAs votes less than the total value of MPs votes
D maintain uniformity in the scale of representation of the different states
Q36. The Right against exploitation in the Fundamental Rights has been given to
A children
B labourers
C govt. servants
D legislators
ANS A
Sol. Fundamental Rights are the basic rights of the common people and inalienable rights of the people who enjoy it under the charter of rights contained in Part III(Article 12 to 35) of Constitution of India. The right against exploitation, given in Articles 23 and 24, provides for two provisions, namely the abolition of trafficking in human beings and Begar (forced labour), and abolition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs like factories, mines, etc.
Q37. The President can declare national emergency :
A only in case of foreign attack
B only in case of armed rebellion
C if he is satisfied that a great threat exists to the security of India either due to war or external aggression or armed rebellion
D none of the above
ANS C
Sol. National emergency can be declared on the basis of external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. Such an emergency was declared in India in 1962 (China war), 1971 (Pakistan war), and 1975 (declared by Indira Gandhi).
Q38. The office of the ‘Whip’ is mentioned in
A Constitution of India.
B Rules of the house
C In a separate Parliamentary Statute
D None of these
ANS D
Sol. In India, the party whip directs the party members to stick to the party’s stand on certain issues and directs them to vote as per the direction of senior party members. Whip cannot be used in all cases. For example, Political parties cannot issue any direction or whip to members to vote or not in Presidential poll. The implication of a not to follow a Whip on Member’s part is to risk losing their seat in Parliament on account of defection. The office of Whip, in India, is mentioned neither in the Constitution nor in the rules of the house, nor in the Parliamentary statutes. It is based on the conventions of the Parliamentary government.
Q39. Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Parliament—
A Speaker of Lok Sabha
B Chairman of Rajya Sabha
C Both a & b
D None of the above
ANS C
Sol. Ad hoc Committees are appointed for a specific purpose and they cease to exist when they finish the task assigned to them and submit a report.
Q40. In the event of the President and the Vice-President not being available, who among the following will perform the functions of the President?
A Prime Minister
B Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C Chief Justice of India
D Senior most Governor of a State
ANS C
Sol. The Indian Parliament has enacted the law (The President (Discharge of Functions) Act, 1969) for the discharge of the functions of the President when vacancies occur in the offices of the President and of the Vice-President simultaneously, owing to removal, death, resignation of the incumbent or otherwise. In such an eventuality, the Chief Justice, or in his absence, the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court of India available discharges the functions of the President until a newly elected President enters upon his office or a newly elected Vice-President begins to act as President under Article 65 of the Constitution, whichever is the earlier.For example, in 1969, when President Zakir Husain died in Office, Vice-President V. V. Giri served as the acting President of India. However, later, V.V Giri resigned from both posts (Acting President of India and Vice-President of India) as he became a candidate in the 1969 Presidential election in India. In this event, the then Chief Justice of India, Justice Mohammad Hidayatullah served as the acting President of India until the next President was elected.
Q41. Which one of the following statements regarding the Supreme Court of India is not correct?
A It acts as the guardian of the liberties of the people of India
B It acts as the guardian of the Constitution
C It acts as the protector of the Directive Principles of State Policy
D It has final power to investigate disputes regarding election of the President and Vice-President of India
ANS C
Sol. The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed from the Irish Constitution. While most of the Fundamental Rights are negative obligations on the state, DPSPs are positive obligations on the state, though not enforceable in a court of law.
Q42.The salary of the Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court
A cannot be reduced under any circumstances
B can be reduced by Parliament by a two-thirds majority
C can be reduced during the national emergency
D can be reduced during the financial emergency
ANS D
Sol. Article 125 of the Indian constitution leaves it to the Indian parliament to determine the salary, other allowances, leave of absence, pension, etc. of the supreme court judges. However, the parliament cannot alter any of these privileges and rights to the judge’s disadvantage after his/her appointment.The Financial Emergency provided under Article 360. It provides that if the President is satisfied that the financial stability or credit of India or any of its part is threatened; he may declare a state of Financial Emergency. The President may ask the States to reduce the salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons in government service.
Polity Question for RRB
Q43.The Central Government can legislate on a subject in the State List
A if the Parliament passes a resolution
B if the President issues an ordinance to this
C the Supreme Court grants necessary authority to the Parliament
D the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority declaring that particular subject in the State list to be of national importance
ANS D
Sol. Though under ordinary circumstances the Central Government does not possess power to legislate on subjects enumerated in the State List, but under certain special conditions the Union Parliament can make laws even on these subjects.a) In the National Interest (Art.249),b) Under Proclamation of National Emergency(Art.250),c) By Agreement between States (Art. 252),d) To Implement Treaties (Art. 253),e) Under Proclamation of President’s Rule (Art.356)
Q44. Which one of the following has been wrongly listed as a Directive principle?
A provision of adequate means of livelihood for all the citizens
B provision of employment facilities to all able-bodied persons
C protection of workers, especially children
D securing of equal pay for equal work to both men and women
ANS B
Sol. Part IV, Articles 36-51 of the Indian constitution constitutes the Directive Principles of State Policy which contain the broad directives or guidelines to be followed by the State while establishing policies and laws. The legislative and executive powers of the state are to be exercised under the purview of the Directive Principles of the Indian Constitution.
Q45. Which one of the following legislative powers of the State Council of Ministers has been wrongly listed?
A it summons and prorogues the session of either or both the Houses of the State Legislature
B it determines the business and time-table of the State Legislature
C most of the important bills are introduced in the State Legislature by the Council of Ministers
D none of the above
ANS A
Sol. The governor summons the sessions of both houses of the state legislature and prorogues them. The governor can even dissolve the Vidhan Sabha. These powers are formal and the governor while using these powers must act according to the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.
Q46. The subjects on which both the Centre and State Governments can legislate are contained in
A the Union List
B the State List
C Concurrent List
D Residuary List
ANS C
Sol. The Concurrent List or List-III(Seventh Schedule) is a list of 52 items (though the last item is numbered 47) given in the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India.It includes the power to be considered by both the central and state government.
